dear internet, as spurred by partisan politics and european television, i ask you this:
if a nation's leadership falsified documents or knowingly used falsified documents to lead that nation (or set of nations) into war, does that constitute a war crime?
this is based solely on opinion, as i'm much too lazy to look for the geneva convention to read it, or any other international law (does the hague have any other sets of laws).
this isn't to assert that any nations have done so in recent years. it's only hypothetical.
yeah, right.